Unlikely. Carriage inwards is the cost to the seller for their supplier delivering the goods to them, so it has nothing to do with the seller then sending goods to the customer.
Could be that the cost of delivering the goods to the customer was passed on to the customer as part of the sale, then returning the goods is a reversal of that entry if the company is then picking up the tab for the cost of the return.
Or perhaps the cost of delivering the goods to the customer was borne by the company in a 'free delivery' service and offers a 'free returns' service, then both the cost of delivering the goods, and the cost of returning them is borne by the company.
All in all, how you treat the cost of a customer returning goods all depends on how carriage outwards ie the cost to the seller of sending the goods to the customer, was treated in the first place.