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Hi, I have a question I hope you can help with.
I run a small web design business, and own all shares. I have the opportunity to join a larger business owned 90% and 10% by two people, in exchange for 10% from the majority shareholder (making approx 80,10,10). My smaller business would be bought for cash by the larger company (goodwill, existing clients).
As monthly director salaries are effectively made up of small under NI threshold payments, plus dividend, the two existing shareholders have different classes of shares. This is so that monthly dividend can be paid broadly similarly, without the larger shareholder being owed huge amounts in dividend. If I joined them, I would receive the same class of share as the minority shareholder.
My question is this: is there a risk further down the line (following a dispute or otherwise) that the majority shareholder, with a controlling shareholding, could decide that his class of share receives a huge dividend, and the second class of share receives none? Essentially rendering the second class of share worthless?
I will of course be taking advice from my accountant, but they're on holiday at the minute.
Thanks in advance for any advice.
I run a small web design business, and own all shares. I have the opportunity to join a larger business owned 90% and 10% by two people, in exchange for 10% from the majority shareholder (making approx 80,10,10). My smaller business would be bought for cash by the larger company (goodwill, existing clients).
As monthly director salaries are effectively made up of small under NI threshold payments, plus dividend, the two existing shareholders have different classes of shares. This is so that monthly dividend can be paid broadly similarly, without the larger shareholder being owed huge amounts in dividend. If I joined them, I would receive the same class of share as the minority shareholder.
My question is this: is there a risk further down the line (following a dispute or otherwise) that the majority shareholder, with a controlling shareholding, could decide that his class of share receives a huge dividend, and the second class of share receives none? Essentially rendering the second class of share worthless?
I will of course be taking advice from my accountant, but they're on holiday at the minute.
Thanks in advance for any advice.