I have a beginner question on this example related to lease capitalization:
Then the following is the balance sheet of the capitalized lease
My questions are:
From these parameters, we can easily get the allocation of the $10,000 in each year:It is a 4-year lease, requiring the lessee to pay $10,000 per year. The discount rate is 10%.
Year | Opening Liability | Interest | Principal | Closing Liability |
Year 0 | NA | NA | NA | $31,700 |
Year 1 | 31,700 | 3,170 | 6,830 | 24,870 |
Year 2 | 24,870 | 2,487 | 7,513 | 17,357 |
Year 3 | 17,357 | 1,735 | 8,265 | 9,092 |
Year 4 | 9,092 | 909 | 9,092 | 0 |
Then the following is the balance sheet of the capitalized lease
Assets | Year 0 | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 |
Leased assets | 31,700 | 31,700 | 31,700 | 31,700 | 31,700 |
Accumulated depreciation | 0 | 7,925 | 15,850 | 23,755 | 31,700 |
Net | 31,700 | 23,755 | 15,850 | 7,925 | 0 |
Liabilities | Year 0 | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 |
Current portion of lease obligation | 6,830 | 7,513 | 8,265 | 9,092 | 0 |
Long-term debt: lease obligation | 24,870 | 17,357 | 9,092 | 0 | 0 |
Sum | 31,700 | 24,870 | 17,357 | 9,092 | 0 |
My questions are:
- Why do we have to use the straight-line method to depreciate the leased assets? Why can't we just decrease the leased assets by the current portion of lease in each year?
- Because we depreciate lease assets and lease liabilities in different ways, the lease assets are not equal to the lease liabilities in Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3. How do we re-balance this inequality?