Hi. Could you please share your thoughts on how you would disclose the
notional amounts of foreign currency forward contracts (fx forwards) in the notes to the financials? Consider the example below for illustrative purposes:
- I present my financials in Canadian Dollars (CAD).
- My financial year-end is Dec 31.
- On Nov 15, I enter into a 3-month fx forward to sell British £100 in exchange for CAD at a forward rate of 1.655 on Feb 15.
- At year-end (Dec 31), my positions are as follows:
Transaction | Forward amount in local currency | Forward amount in presentation currency | Market value in presentation currency | Fair value movement |
Buy | $165.50 (i.e. 100 x 1.655) | $165.50 | $165.50 | |
Sell | -£100.00 | -$165.50 | -$156.00 | $9.50 (gain) |
Therefore, in the notes to the financial statements,
would you disclose the notional amounts as a) or b) – see below:
a) Notional amounts in local currency (
despite presenting the financials in CAD?)
Transaction | Notional Long | Notional Short | Fair Value – Asset | Fair Value – Liability |
FX Forward - GBP | $165.50 | -£100.00 | $9.50 | - |
b) Notional amounts in presentation currency
Transaction | Notional Long | Notional Short | Fair Value – Asset | Fair Value – Liability |
FX Forward - GBP | $165.50 | -$165.50 | $9.50 | - |
If you believe it to be b), how then is the notional amount determined by those who make the same disclosure above but show only one notional amount for the contract and not the long and short positions separately. I ask this since the long and short positions net off in their presentation currency. See below what such a disclosure usually looks like:
Transaction | Notional | Fair Value – Asset | Fair Value – Liability |
FX Forward - GBP | ??? | $9.50 | - |