Enterprise Value can be thought of as the purchase price of an enterprise and is being calculated as follows:
Enterprise Value = Equity (or Market Capitalization) + Debt - Cash
Now I am so confused and have 2 questions:
1) Why should we add debt rather than subtracting it?
If a firm has more debt, shouldn't the selling price be lower because any one who purchases the firm would have to assume this debt and pay it off in the future? How can the selling price be higher when the company has more debt as opposed to less debt?
2) Why should we subtract cash rather than adding it?
If a firm has more cash, shouldn't the selling price be higher because any one who purchases the firm would get this large amount of cash, in addition to the acquiring the firm? How can the selling price be lower if the company has more cash as opposed to less cash?
I'm so confused when I think of it in terms of the following example:
Let's say we want to purchase Company A. Suppose Company A has the following balance sheet right before being purchased.
Cash = 1M
Other assets = 9M
Total assets = 10M
Debt = 2M
Total liabilities = 2M
Let's say we pay X dollars to purchase Company A. After being purchased, I imagine Company A's balance sheet would remain exactly the same, i.e. cash of 1M still sits there and we have assumed the debt of 2M, to be repaid in the future. Basically, we have assumed Company A's balance sheet.
I guess the purchase price (X) here would correspond to the Enterprise Value as defined above. But something just doesn't make sense to me.
Hopefully someone can explain/clarify. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Enterprise Value = Equity (or Market Capitalization) + Debt - Cash
Now I am so confused and have 2 questions:
1) Why should we add debt rather than subtracting it?
If a firm has more debt, shouldn't the selling price be lower because any one who purchases the firm would have to assume this debt and pay it off in the future? How can the selling price be higher when the company has more debt as opposed to less debt?
2) Why should we subtract cash rather than adding it?
If a firm has more cash, shouldn't the selling price be higher because any one who purchases the firm would get this large amount of cash, in addition to the acquiring the firm? How can the selling price be lower if the company has more cash as opposed to less cash?
I'm so confused when I think of it in terms of the following example:
Let's say we want to purchase Company A. Suppose Company A has the following balance sheet right before being purchased.
Cash = 1M
Other assets = 9M
Total assets = 10M
Debt = 2M
Total liabilities = 2M
Let's say we pay X dollars to purchase Company A. After being purchased, I imagine Company A's balance sheet would remain exactly the same, i.e. cash of 1M still sits there and we have assumed the debt of 2M, to be repaid in the future. Basically, we have assumed Company A's balance sheet.
I guess the purchase price (X) here would correspond to the Enterprise Value as defined above. But something just doesn't make sense to me.
Hopefully someone can explain/clarify. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
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