I am having some trouble understanding the accounting for allowance for doubtful accounts. I understand that using the percentage of credit sales method or aging method gives management an estimate of bad debt expense. Based on the estimate, a debit is made to the bad debt expense account and a credit is made to the allowance for doubtful accounts, a contra-asset account that reduces accounts receivable to net realizable value. I was looking over a problem in one of my textbooks and became somewhat confused.
According to the problem, a company has an accounts receivable balance of $304,000 and an allowance for doubtful accounts balance of $134 (credit) at the end of 2008. During 2009, a customer defaults on a $524 balance related to goods purchased in 2008. For 2009, bad debt expense is estimated to be $8,866. The textbook specifies the debits of $524 and $8,866 are both made at 12/31/2009. The $524 debit to allowance for doubtful accounts is made before the credit to allowance for doubtful accounts of $8,866 is made, which gives it a debit balance? I have read that the allowance account cannot have a debit balance, which makes sense, since it is a contra-asset account. Also, the $534 debit reduces the $8,866 credit to the allowance for doubtful accounts, so how can a default attributable to a different period reduce the allowance account, which stores the estimated bad debt expense?
According to the problem, a company has an accounts receivable balance of $304,000 and an allowance for doubtful accounts balance of $134 (credit) at the end of 2008. During 2009, a customer defaults on a $524 balance related to goods purchased in 2008. For 2009, bad debt expense is estimated to be $8,866. The textbook specifies the debits of $524 and $8,866 are both made at 12/31/2009. The $524 debit to allowance for doubtful accounts is made before the credit to allowance for doubtful accounts of $8,866 is made, which gives it a debit balance? I have read that the allowance account cannot have a debit balance, which makes sense, since it is a contra-asset account. Also, the $534 debit reduces the $8,866 credit to the allowance for doubtful accounts, so how can a default attributable to a different period reduce the allowance account, which stores the estimated bad debt expense?