GAAP is concerned with how end of year financial statements that will be made public are presented, GAAP is not concerned with internal month-end accounts. It is absolutely fine, and indeed correct, to show an accrual in the last period of the year for an annual bonus that only comes due to be paid when it's more likely than not that it will be paid - ie, the last period of the year, at which point a reliable estimate, if not exact amount, of the bonus due to be paid will be available and accrued, and conforms perfectly, to GAAP.
LOL, no.
GAAP is concerned with the measurement of economic activity, the time when such measurements are recorded into the GL, the summarization of such economic activity in the form of financial statements and the disclosures surrounding such. It has little/nothing to do with, "end of year financial statements that will be made public are presented." It has NOTHING to do with whether a company is public or private or whether financial statements are to be used internally or externally. You will never find any definition of GAAP,
anywhere, that resembles that definition. As a matter of fact, I'm literally stunned that you could possibly believe that is the definition/concern of GAAP.
If someone wants to use internal financial statements that follow different rules than GAAP/externally generated financial statements (which I would refer to as the, "correct" financials), that's fine, but there is a risk in doing so and everyone who does such should be made aware of that drawback/difference. Ultimately, the cash in the bank is what it is and the financial statements, once the appropriate
GAAP accruals are made, are what they are...
Insofar as a bonus accrual is concerned...
The technically correct answer is as follows:
If management, based on the information at hand, believes it is probable (& it can be reasonably estimated) that a bonus will be paid at (in reality, "shortly after") year-end, when financial results are finalized, then it IS appropriate & required to accrue the bonus expense in a systematic and rational manner on a monthly basis. Difficulty in measuring an obligation is NOT, by itself, a reason for not recording a liability if the amount can be estimated.
These current liabilities fall under the category of, "The payee is known but the amount may have to be estimated" accrual.
You continue to make reference to a, "more likely than not" threshold. That is not correct in this situation. That is a FIN 48 (codified at ASC 740) threshold, which has nothing to do with bonus payments.
It's perfectly correct. That's how the scheme works - don't know until the year end, so it's patently wrong to try and put it into each month when you've no idea if it will actually be paid or how much. Best you can do is a comparative figure per month, but as I said before, I don't really see the point of that.
No, it isn't. You are just wrong here.
When I read comments such as:
In terms of the bonus, nothing is accrued until the year end because it's at that point that we know if the bonus is payable or not. It usually is, but we don't know for sure until each year end. So nothing is accrued until the year end.
you are going to have a tough time rationalizing how not to accrue for it before year-end.
The idea that you, "don't know for sure until each year end" is patently incorrect & not appropriate. ESTIMATES are often KEY in preparing financial statements.
Clearly, a nonpublic company has much more room for negotiation than a public company, but that doesn't make it technically correct.
I go through this exact discussion each and every quarter with my auditors, Ernst & Young (& Deloitte and Touche prior to them). I have even asked this question for ~10 years while working at Deloitte and Touche myself. If you continue to insist that I'm wrong, I don't know what to tell you except that you aren't following GAAP.