We are a company with 2 separate businesses with separate bank accounts and books. Company A got a bank loan and then loaned it to Company B. Company B is the money maker of the 2 companies. Company B pays all of Company A's expenses and charges them of to a Due To/From BS account. At the end of the month, the CFO makes an AJE from cash to the liability loan account leaving Company B with a zero register balance (so called, writing a check to Company A for whatever in left available in Company B's register). There have been a few months that an AJE was made in the reverse. The cash never changes from one company to the other through the bank. As he puts it, it is only a paper transfer. I argue that this should not be done because there is no cash transferring hands. If he wants to pay down the loan, shouldn't he use intercompany company accounts? I cannot reconcile the bank statements because of this. Isn't cash-in, cash-in and cash-out, cash-out? Shouldn't you be able to reconcile the register to the bank statement? Is this legal?